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CSIR PAPER II COMPLETE SOLUTION WITH DETAILED EXPLANATION















31. A database of individuals available for meeting current as well as future. human resource needs is called

 

 

1. Manpower needs.

 

2. Skills inventory

 

3 . Succession planning

 

 4. Replacement planning

 

 

 

The correct answer is: 2. Skills inventory

Explanation:

  1. Manpower needs: This term generally refers to the overall requirement for human resources in an organization. It is a broader concept that encompasses the need for a workforce but doesn't specifically address the database of individuals or their skills.

  2. Skills inventory: This is the correct answer. A skills inventory is a database that contains detailed information about the skills, qualifications, and experiences of individuals within an organization. It helps in identifying and managing the talent pool available for current and future human resource needs. It provides a comprehensive view of the skills and expertise present among employees, facilitating better workforce planning, training, and decision-making.

  3. Succession planning: Succession planning involves identifying and developing potential future leaders within an organization. It focuses on preparing individuals to take on key roles in the future, usually in leadership positions. While it is related to human resource needs, it specifically targets leadership development rather than maintaining a broader database of skills across all employees.

  4. Replacement planning: Replacement planning is a strategy for identifying and preparing individuals to take over specific roles or positions in case of unexpected departures or vacancies. Similar to succession planning, it is more specific and deals with ensuring a smooth transition for particular roles rather than maintaining a comprehensive database of skills for various purposes.

In summary, a database of individuals available for meeting current as well as future human resource needs is referred to as a skills inventory.

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32. Assessment of an individual's performance by customers, peers, subordinates and superiors is called

 

1. Job appraisal

 

2. 360 degrees appraisal

 

3. Self assessment

 

4. Annual assessment

 

 

The correct answer is:

  1. 360 degrees appraisal

Explanation:

  1. Job appraisal: This term typically refers to the traditional performance appraisal conducted by a supervisor or manager. It involves the assessment of an employee's job performance based on their job duties, responsibilities, and goals.

  2. 360 degrees appraisal: This type of assessment involves gathering feedback from multiple sources, including customers, peers, subordinates, and superiors. The idea is to provide a comprehensive and well-rounded view of an individual's performance from various perspectives. This method allows for a more holistic evaluation, capturing insights from different angles within and outside the organization.

  3. Self-assessment: This involves an individual evaluating their own performance. While self-assessment can be a valuable component of the overall performance evaluation process, it is distinct from the 360 degrees appraisal, which involves feedback from multiple parties.

  4. Annual assessment: This term is more generic and doesn't specify the sources of assessment. It could refer to any type of performance evaluation conducted annually, including job appraisals or 360 degrees appraisals.

In summary, 360 degrees appraisal is the most accurate term for an assessment that involves feedback from customers, peers, subordinates, and superiors, providing a comprehensive view of an individual's performance.

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33. Synergy is

 

1. 2+2=5

 

2. 2+24

 

3. 2+2=1

 

4. 2+2=0

 

 

The correct option is:

  1. 2+2=1

Synergy refers to the interaction or cooperation of multiple elements to produce a combined effect greater than the sum of their individual effects. In this context, "2+2=1" symbolizes the idea that when two entities come together, their collaboration creates a synergy that results in a value greater than the simple addition of their individual contributions. This concept is often used to highlight the benefits of teamwork, cooperation, and collaboration in various fields, emphasizing that the whole can be greater than the sum of its parts.

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34. Process of identifying and attracting prospective eligible candidates is

 

1. Selection

 

1.       Staffing

 

3. Recruitment

 

4. Training

 

 

 

 

 

The correct answer is option 3: Recruitment.

Explanation:

  1. Selection: The selection process comes after the recruitment process. It involves choosing the most suitable candidates from the pool of applicants identified during recruitment. Selection focuses on assessing the skills, qualifications, and suitability of candidates for a specific job.

  2. Staffing: Staffing is a broader term that encompasses various activities related to managing the workforce within an organization. It includes recruitment, selection, training, and other activities to ensure that the organization has the right people in the right positions.

  3. Recruitment: Recruitment is the process of identifying and attracting potential candidates to fill job vacancies within an organization. It involves various activities such as job posting, sourcing candidates, screening resumes, conducting interviews, and making job offers. The primary goal of recruitment is to build a pool of qualified candidates from which the organization can select the most suitable individuals.

  4. Training: Training is a separate process that focuses on developing the skills and knowledge of existing employees. It is not directly related to identifying and attracting new candidates. Training aims to enhance the capabilities of current staff members to improve their performance in their current roles or to prepare them for future responsibilities.

In summary, the process of identifying and attracting prospective eligible candidates is referred to as "Recruitment" (option 3). This process is crucial for building a talented and qualified workforce within an organization.

 

 

 

 

35. Which of the following statements is true

 

1. A Government Servant can participate in meetings of political parties

 

2. Can take active part in holding rallies in support of political parties

 

3. Display of posters and other notices by Government Servant Union/Associations in Government buildings

 

4. Can take part in social and charitable activities occasionally.

 

The statement that is true among the options provided is:

  1. Can take part in social and charitable activities occasionally.

Explanation:

  1. A Government Servant can participate in meetings of political parties:

  • This statement is generally false. Government servants are expected to maintain political neutrality and refrain from participating in the activities of political parties. In many countries, including India, there are rules and regulations that prohibit government servants from engaging in political activities to ensure the impartiality and integrity of public service.

  1. Can take active part in holding rallies in support of political parties:

  • This statement is generally false as well. Active involvement in political rallies or campaigns is usually restricted for government servants to maintain the neutrality and impartiality of the civil service. Engaging in such activities may lead to a perception of bias and compromise the integrity of public service.

  1. Display of posters and other notices by Government Servant Union/Associations in Government buildings:

  • This statement is generally false. While there might be variations depending on the specific rules and regulations of a country, government buildings are typically expected to remain neutral and not be used for promoting the interests of unions or associations. Displaying political or union-related material in government buildings may be restricted to maintain the neutrality of public institutions.

  1. Can take part in social and charitable activities occasionally:

  • This statement is generally true. Government servants are often allowed to participate in social and charitable activities as long as it does not interfere with their official duties and does not compromise the principles of neutrality and integrity. Such activities are considered separate from political involvement and are generally encouraged as part of community engagement and public service values. However, it is important to adhere to any specific guidelines or restrictions in place in a particular country or organization.

In summary, the correct statement that aligns with the general principles governing government servants' conduct is option 4.

 

 

36. A systematic exploration of the activities within a job

 

 

1. Job analysis

 

2. Job description

 

3. Job specification.

 

4. Job evaluation

 

 

The correct answer is: 1. Job analysis

Explanation:

  1. Job Analysis: Job analysis is a systematic process of gathering, documenting, and analyzing information about a job. It involves a detailed examination of the tasks, responsibilities, duties, skills, and qualifications required for a particular job. The purpose of job analysis is to provide a clear understanding of what a job entails, helping organizations make informed decisions related to recruitment, training, performance appraisal, and compensation.

  2. Job Description: A job description is a written document that summarizes the key aspects of a job identified through the job analysis. It typically includes details such as job title, duties, responsibilities, qualifications, and reporting relationships. While a job description is a product of job analysis, it is not the process itself.

  3. Job Specification: Job specification refers to the specific qualifications, skills, and attributes required for an individual to perform a particular job successfully. It is another outcome of job analysis but is more focused on the human qualities necessary for effective job performance.

  4. Job Evaluation: Job evaluation is a different process that involves assessing the relative value of different jobs within an organization to establish a fair and equitable pay structure. It considers factors such as the complexity of tasks, responsibilities, skill requirements, and working conditions. While job analysis provides essential input for job evaluation, the two processes serve distinct purposes.

In summary, when we talk about the systematic exploration of the activities within a job, the most appropriate choice is "Job analysis" (Option 1), as it encompasses the comprehensive study of various aspects of a job to facilitate better organizational decision-making.

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37. A government employee can, without the previous sanction of the government,

 

 

1. Undertake honorary work of a social or charitable nature,

 

2. Participate in sports activities as an amateur,

 

 3. Take part in the registration,promotion or management of a literary, scientific or Charitable

 

society or a club

 

4. Do all the above

 

 

 

 

The correct option is 4. Do all the above.

Explanation:

  1. Undertake honorary work of a social or charitable nature: Government employees are generally allowed to engage in honorary work of a social or charitable nature without the previous sanction of the government. This includes voluntary activities that contribute to the welfare of society or charitable causes. It is considered a permissible activity that doesn't conflict with the duties and responsibilities of a government employee.

  2. Participate in sports activities as an amateur: Generally, government employees are permitted to participate in sports activities as amateurs without requiring prior sanction from the government. Engaging in sports as a hobby or for recreational purposes is generally considered a personal choice that does not interfere with official duties.

  3. Take part in the registration, promotion, or management of a literary, scientific, or charitable society or a club: Government employees are often allowed to be involved in the registration, promotion, or management of literary, scientific, or charitable societies or clubs without obtaining prior approval from the government. This is considered a constructive and non-conflicting activity that aligns with the promotion of cultural, scientific, or charitable endeavors.

  4. Do all the above: The correct option is the most inclusive one. By choosing option 4, a government employee is allowed to undertake honorary work, participate in sports activities as an amateur, and take part in the registration, promotion, or management of literary, scientific, or charitable societies or clubs without seeking prior approval from the government.

It's important to note that while these activities are generally permissible, government employees should still adhere to any specific rules or guidelines set by their respective government departments or organizations. Additionally, engaging in activities that may pose a conflict of interest or compromise the employee's impartiality and integrity may still be subject to restrictions or require official approval.

 

 

38. Government of India may permit its employee to work on basis for recognized Central

Government employees unions/ associations/federations

 

1. Deputation

 

2. Foreign service

 

3 Permanent absorption.

 

4 Transfer

 

 

 

 

The correct option in this case is:

  1. Deputation

Explanation:

  1. Deputation:

  • Deputation refers to the temporary transfer of an employee from one government department or organization to another, or from the government to a public sector undertaking (PSU), or even to an international organization.

  • During the period of deputation, the employee continues to be an employee of the parent organization (in this case, the Government of India), but they work with the organization to which they are deputed.

  • The employee may work on the basis of recognized Central Government employees unions/associations/federations during the deputation period. This allows for collaboration and coordination with these representative bodies.

  1. Foreign Service:

  • Foreign service involves the posting of government employees to foreign countries for diplomatic, consular, or other official purposes.

  • During foreign service, employees may represent the Government of India in international forums and work with recognized international bodies, but the context of working with Central Government employees unions/associations/federations is not directly related to foreign service.

  1. Permanent Absorption:

  • Permanent absorption refers to the situation where an employee is permanently transferred from one organization to another, becoming a part of the new organization.

  • This option is not directly related to working with recognized Central Government employees unions/associations/federations as it primarily deals with a permanent transfer.

  1. Transfer:

  • Transfer involves the movement of an employee from one position to another within the same organization or from one location to another.

  • While transfers can happen for various reasons, the specific context of working with recognized Central Government employees unions/associations/federations is not typically associated with routine transfers.

In summary, the option that best aligns with the idea of allowing Government of India employees to work on the basis of recognized Central Government employees unions/associations/federations is Deputation. During deputation, employees can collaborate with these representative bodies while still being employees of the Government of India.

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39. Dowry includes

 

1. Property

 

2.Valuable securities

 

3.Both Property and valuable securities

 

4.All the shove

 

 

The correct option is:

  1. Both Property and valuable securities

Explanation:

Dowry refers to the property and valuable securities that a bride brings to her husband upon marriage. It is a cultural practice in some societies where the family of the bride provides gifts, money, or assets to the groom and his family as a part of the marriage arrangement. This practice has been widely criticized as it can lead to financial burdens, exploitation, and even violence against brides if the agreed-upon dowry is not met.

So, the option "Both Property and valuable securities" is accurate as it encompasses the typical components of dowry.

 

 

40 . Save in exceptional circumstances, the maximum leave that can be granted to a central Government servant is:

 

1. 90 days

 

2. 180 days

 

3.2 years

 

 4. 5 vears

 

 

 

The correct answer is:

  1. 180 days

Explanation:

In the context of central government servants in India, the maximum leave that can be granted, save in exceptional circumstances, is 180 days. This is in accordance with the Leave Rules for Central Government Employees.

Leave rules for government servants typically include various types of leave such as earned leave, half pay leave, and commuted leave, among others. The maximum duration of leave may vary based on the type of leave and the circumstances under which it is granted.

While the maximum leave is generally capped at 180 days, there could be exceptional circumstances where additional leave may be granted. These exceptional cases are typically subject to specific conditions and approval processes. It's essential for government servants to adhere to the leave rules and procedures outlined by the government to ensure proper management of workforce attendance and responsibilities.

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41. Government servants are required to adhere to certain norms all the timest under the Conduct Rules. In this context, which of the following statements is NOT true?

 

1. Maintain absolute integrity

 

 2. Act in a discourteous manner in the performance of his official duties;

 

3. Maintain devotion to duty;

 

4.       Do nothing which is unbecoming of a Government servant

 

 

 

 

The statement that is NOT true in the context of government servants adhering to Conduct Rules is:

  1. Act in a discourteous manner in the performance of his official duties.

Explanation:

Government servants are expected to maintain high standards of conduct and ethics in the performance of their official duties. Let's analyze each statement:

  1. Maintain absolute integrity:

  • True. Government servants are required to maintain absolute integrity, honesty, and impartiality in their actions and decisions.

  1. Act in a discourteous manner in the performance of his official duties:

  • NOT true. Government servants are expected to act courteously and professionally while performing their official duties. Discourteous behavior goes against the principles of professionalism and can harm the reputation of the government.

  1. Maintain devotion to duty:

  • True. Government servants are expected to be devoted to their duties, showing commitment and diligence in carrying out their responsibilities.

  1. Do nothing which is unbecoming of a Government servant:

  • True. This statement emphasizes the expectation that government servants should not engage in any behavior that is inappropriate or reflects negatively on the reputation of a government servant.

In summary, option 2 is the statement that is NOT true, as acting in a discourteous manner contradicts the expected conduct outlined in the Conduct Rules for government servants.

 

 

42. Which component is not included in the moveable property?

 

1. Jewellery

 

2. Insurance policies, the annual premia of which does not exceed two months' basic pay

 

3. Shares

 

4. Motor car, motor cycles

 

 

 



 

The component that is not included in movable property among the options provided is "Insurance policies, the annual premia of which does not exceed two months' basic pay" (Option 2).

Explanation:

  1. Jewellery: Jewellery is generally considered movable property. Movable property refers to assets that can be easily transported and are not permanently attached to the land or building. Jewellery falls under this category as it can be moved and does not form a permanent part of the structure.

  2. Insurance policies, the annual premia of which does not exceed two months' basic pay: This is the correct answer. Insurance policies, when considered as movable property, may be excluded if the annual premium does not exceed two months' basic pay. This exclusion is likely in order to provide some level of protection for essential insurance coverage that individuals may have.

  3. Shares: Shares in companies are considered movable property. They represent ownership in a company and can be easily transferred or sold. As such, shares are typically classified as movable assets.

  4. Motor car, motor cycles: Motor vehicles, including cars and motorcycles, are generally considered movable property. They are assets that can be moved and are not permanently affixed to the land. Motor vehicles are commonly classified as movable assets.

In summary, among the options provided, the component that is not included in movable property is "Insurance policies, the annual premia of which does not exceed two months' basic pay" (Option 2).

 

 

 

 

43. Suspension is a

 

1. Major penalty

 

2. Minor penalty

 

3. Simple penalty

 

4. Executive action

 

 

Suspension is not a penalty in the context of sports or law enforcement. Instead, it refers to the temporary removal or restriction of certain privileges, rights, or activities. Therefore, none of the provided options (major penalty, minor penalty, simple penalty, executive action) accurately describe suspension.

In sports, particularly in games like ice hockey or basketball, penalties are categorized as major or minor based on their severity, and they result in a player being sent to the penalty box for a specific amount of time. Suspension, on the other hand, typically occurs outside the course of the game and involves a player or team being temporarily disqualified from participating in future games.

In a legal context, suspension can also refer to the temporary revocation of certain rights or privileges, such as a driver's license suspension or the suspension of an individual from certain activities.

Therefore, the correct answer to the question is none of the provided options. If the question is related to a specific context, such as sports or law, additional details would be needed to provide a more precise answer.

 

 

 

 

 

44. A government servant retires on attaining the age of superannuation when he is …………….. old

 

1. 55 years

 

2. 58 years

 

3. 60 years

 

4. 65 years

 

 

 

A government servant retires on attaining the age of superannuation when he is 60 years old.

Explanation: Superannuation is the official retirement age set by the government or an organization, at which point an employee is required to retire. In the context of government servants, the superannuation age is typically set at 60 years. This means that when a government servant reaches the age of 60, they are expected to retire from their service.

Option 3, "60 years," is the correct answer based on the standard retirement age for government servants. It's essential to note that retirement ages can vary across different countries and organizations, but the age of 60 is a common retirement age for government employees in many places.

 

45. In case a Government servant seeks to take-up a part-time assignment as

lecturer, he is required to:

 

1. inform his office

 

2. take-up the assignment and then seek permission

 

3. seek prior permission

 

 4. There is no need to inform the office

 

 

 

The correct option is: 3. seek prior permission

Explanation:

When a government servant wishes to take up a part-time assignment as a lecturer, it is generally required to seek prior permission from the relevant authorities. This is a common practice to ensure transparency, uphold the principles of integrity, and avoid any potential conflicts of interest.

Here's a detailed explanation for each option:

  1. Inform his office: While informing the office about the intention to take up a part-time assignment is a good practice, it may not be sufficient. Seeking formal permission is crucial to ensure that the government servant complies with the rules and regulations of their employment.

  2. Take-up the assignment and then seek permission: This approach is not advisable as it involves taking action before obtaining the necessary approvals. It could lead to complications, and in many organizations, such actions without prior permission may be considered a violation of the code of conduct.

  3. Seek prior permission: This is the recommended course of action. Government servants are generally required to seek permission before taking up any part-time assignments to ensure that there is no conflict of interest, and the primary responsibilities of the government job are not compromised. Seeking prior permission also allows the authorities to assess the potential impact on the employee's official duties and make an informed decision.

  4. There is no need to inform the office: This is not a correct option. Most government organizations have established protocols and policies regarding part-time engagements or external activities of their employees. Failing to inform the office can lead to disciplinary actions or other consequences.

In summary, seeking prior permission is the appropriate step for a government servant intending to take up a part-time assignment as a lecturer. It ensures adherence to rules, maintains transparency, and helps prevent any conflicts of interest.

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46. Which of the following is not covered under term "Goods"?

 

1. Livestock

 

2. Furniture

 

3. Spares

 

4.Books, publications, periodicals etc.

 

 

 

The term "Goods" can have different meanings depending on the context. However, considering common legal and commercial definitions, the item not covered under the term "Goods" is 4. Books, publications, periodicals etc.

Here's why:

  • Livestock: Animals raised for meat, milk, wool, or other commercial purposes are generally considered tangible property and fall under the category of "Goods" in most contexts.

  • Furniture: Physical objects used for furnishing a space are also tangible property and qualify as "Goods."

  • Spares: Spare parts for machines or other equipment are tangible components meant for physical replacement, making them "Goods."

  • Books, publications, periodicals: These intellectual creations are considered intangible property in legal and commercial terms. They represent ideas and information rather than physical objects. While physical copies of these materials are tangible (paper, ink), the core value lies in the non-physical content, which differentiates them from traditional "Goods."

However, it's important to note that the specific definition of "Goods" can vary depending on the context. For instance, some tax laws might include certain types of intellectual property within the definition of "Goods" for taxation purposes. Therefore, it's always best to consider the specific context when interpreting the term.

I hope this explanation clarifies the answer!

 

 

47. In terms of the provisions contained in the General Financial Rules, 2005,to "Advertised Tender Enquiry"procedure is to be adopted in case of procurement of goods, the estimated cost of which is Rs ……………………….. and above.

 

1. Rs 10 Lakhs.

 

2. Rs. 15 Lakhs

 

3. Rs. 25 Lakhs

 

4. Rs. 50 Lakhs

 

 

In the General Financial Rules (GFR), 2005, the "Advertised Tender Enquiry" (ATE) procedure is specified for procurement of goods based on their estimated cost. The correct option regarding the estimated cost for adopting the ATE procedure is:

  1. Rs. 25 Lakhs

Explanation:

The GFR, 2005, provides guidelines for financial management in the Government of India. Specifically, in terms of procurement of goods, the ATE procedure is to be followed for goods with an estimated cost of Rs. 25 Lakhs and above. This means that when the government is planning to procure goods, and the estimated cost is equal to or exceeds Rs. 25 Lakhs, the ATE procedure must be adopted.

Here's a brief overview of the options:

  1. Rs 10 Lakhs: This is below the threshold for ATE, so it does not apply.

  2. Rs. 15 Lakhs: This is also below the threshold for ATE.

  3. Rs. 25 Lakhs: This is the correct option. ATE procedure is applicable for goods with an estimated cost of Rs. 25 Lakhs and above.

  4. Rs. 50 Lakhs: While this is higher than the threshold, the ATE procedure is still applicable for goods with an estimated cost of Rs. 25 Lakhs and above, so Rs. 50 Lakhs falls within the range.

 

 

48. Ordinarily, how much time should be allowed to the bidders for submitting. Tenders in response to "Advertised Tender Enquiry" under the General Financial Rules, 2005?

 

 

1. Four Weeks.

 

2. Five Weeks

 

3. Three weeks

 

4. Two weeks.

 

 

 

According to the General Financial Rules, 2005, the standard time allowed for bidders to submit tenders in response to an "Advertised Tender Enquiry" is typically three weeks. Therefore, the correct option is:

  1. Three weeks.

Explanation:

  1. Four Weeks: This option is longer than the standard time mentioned in the General Financial Rules, 2005. While there may be exceptions based on specific circumstances, the standard time is three weeks.

  2. Five Weeks: Similar to the first option, five weeks is longer than the standard time allowed. The standard time for tender submission is typically three weeks.

  3. Three Weeks: This is the correct option. Ordinarily, as per the General Financial Rules, 2005, bidders are allowed three weeks to submit tenders in response to an "Advertised Tender Enquiry."

  4. Two Weeks: This option is shorter than the standard time allowed under the General Financial Rules, 2005. The standard duration for tender submission is three weeks.

It's important to note that specific procurement rules and timelines may vary based on the nature and complexity of the procurement, and exceptions may be allowed under certain circumstances. However, the question seems to be asking for the standard time, and based on the General Financial Rules, 2005, the standard time is three weeks.

 

 

 

49. "Price Variation Clause" is provided in Contracts the duration of which exceeds?

 

 

1. 12 months

 

2. 18 months

 

3. 24 months.

 

4. 36 months

 

 

 

The correct answer is:

  1. 24 months.

Explanation:

A "Price Variation Clause" in contracts is a provision that allows for adjustments to the contract price under specific circumstances, often related to changes in the cost of labor, materials, or other factors affecting the overall cost of the project. This clause is typically included in contracts with a longer duration to account for potential fluctuations in economic conditions over time.

Contracts with durations exceeding 24 months are more likely to be affected by changes in market conditions, inflation, and other economic factors. Therefore, including a Price Variation Clause in contracts with durations of 24 months or more helps to address the potential impact of unforeseen changes in costs during the extended period of the agreement.

In summary, the inclusion of a Price Variation Clause is warranted in contracts with durations exceeding 24 months to provide flexibility and fairness in adjusting prices based on changing economic conditions over the extended timeframe of the contract.

 

 

 

 

 

 

50.A government servant whose date of birth is 1 April will retire from service on

 

 

1. 31 March

 

2. 30th April

 

3. 31 December

 

4. 30th June

 

 

A government servant whose date of birth is 1 April will retire from service on:

  1. 31 March

Explanation:

In most government organizations, the retirement age is typically specified in terms of completed years of service. If the date of birth of a government servant is 1 April, they would complete one year of service on the following 31 March. Therefore, the retirement date would be 31 March.

For example, if the government servant's date of birth is 1 April 1960, they would complete 1 year of service on 31 March 1961, and their retirement would be effective from that date.

So, the correct answer is 1. 31 March.

 

 

51. Licence Fee is related to

 

1. Government Vehicle

 

2. Education

 

 3.Government Accommodation

 

 4. None of the above

Licence Fee is related to:

  1. Government Accommodation

Explanation:

Licence fee is a charge or rent that individuals or entities pay for the use of government-owned accommodation or property. When individuals or organizations occupy government-provided spaces such as residential quarters, offices, or other facilities, they are typically required to pay a licence fee.

This fee is essentially a form of rent for the right to use and occupy the government-owned premises without transferring ownership. It is commonly associated with government accommodation, where individuals working for the government, such as government employees or officials, may be allocated housing or office space.

Options 1 (Government Vehicle) and 2 (Education) are not directly related to Licence Fee. Licence fees are not typically associated with the use of government vehicles or education-related matters.

Option 4 (None of the above) is incorrect in this context, as Licence Fee is indeed related to government accommodation.

 

 

 

52. The conduct of Government Servants is governed by

 

1. Central Civil Service (Conduct) Rules of Government of India

 

2. Central Civil Service (Classification, Control & Appeal)Rules of Government of India

 

3. Fundamental Rules

 

4. Supplementary Rules of Government of India

 

 

 

The conduct of Government Servants is primarily governed by the following rules:

  1. Fundamental Rules

Explanation:

The Fundamental Rules (FR) form the basis for the conduct and service conditions of government servants in India. These rules are part of the Indian administrative framework and lay down the fundamental principles governing the behavior, service conditions, and disciplinary actions for government employees.

The Central Civil Service (Conduct) Rules and Central Civil Service (Classification, Control & Appeal) Rules are also important, but they are more specific in nature and are derived from the Fundamental Rules.

  1. Central Civil Service (Conduct) Rules of Government of India:

  • These rules focus on regulating the conduct of government servants. They provide guidelines on various aspects such as integrity, impartiality, and the prohibition of engaging in certain activities that may compromise the public servant's position.

  1. Central Civil Service (Classification, Control & Appeal) Rules of Government of India:

  • These rules deal with the classification of services, maintenance of records, control over government servants, and procedures related to disciplinary actions and appeals.

  1. Supplementary Rules of Government of India:

  • Supplementary Rules may exist to provide additional details or provisions to supplement the Fundamental Rules and other related rules.

In summary, while the Central Civil Service (Conduct) Rules, Central Civil Service (Classification, Control & Appeal) Rules, and Supplementary Rules play crucial roles in governing the conduct and service conditions of government servants, the Fundamental Rules serve as the foundational framework that underpins these specific rules and provides the overarching principles for the behavior and service of government employees.

 

 

 

53. What is the minimum age for entering into service in Government

 

 

1. 18 years

 

2. 21 years

 

3. 25 years

 

4. 28 years

The minimum age for entering into service in the government can vary depending on the country and the specific government service or position. As of my last knowledge update in January 2022, I can provide a general overview, but please note that specific requirements may have changed since then, and it's essential to check the latest regulations.

In many countries, the minimum age for entering into government service is typically 18 years. This is because 18 is considered the legal age of adulthood in many jurisdictions, and individuals are eligible to participate in various legal activities, including employment.

Therefore, the correct option based on this general information would be:

  1. 18 years

However, it's crucial to emphasize that government service requirements can vary, and some positions or services may have specific age requirements or preferences. For more accurate and up-to-date information, it is advisable to check the official government recruitment or employment guidelines for the particular country or region in question.

 

 

 

54. Which of the following actions is permitted to the government servants

 

1. to make a joint representation.

 

2. to resort to strike

 

3. to come late habitually

 

 4. to join the Territorial Army

 

 

Among the options provided, the action permitted to government servants is:

  1. to join the Territorial Army

Explanation:

  1. To make a joint representation:

  • Government servants are generally allowed to make joint representations, which means they can collectively present their grievances or demands to the authorities. This is often protected as a form of freedom of association and expression.

  1. To resort to strike:

  • Government servants are usually not permitted to resort to strikes. Strikes in public services can disrupt essential functions and services, and many countries have laws or regulations prohibiting government servants from participating in strikes to ensure the smooth functioning of public services.

  1. To come late habitually:

  • Coming late habitually is generally not permitted for government servants. Punctuality is an essential aspect of maintaining discipline and efficiency in public services. Regular tardiness can be subject to disciplinary actions or warnings.

  1. To join the Territorial Army:

  • In many countries, government servants are allowed to join the Territorial Army or similar reserve forces. This is often seen as a way to enhance national security and is compatible with the responsibilities of government service. However, there might be specific conditions or restrictions, so it's advisable for government servants to check the relevant regulations or seek permission before joining such organizations.

In summary, while options 1 and 4 are generally permitted, option 2 is usually not allowed, and option 3 is also discouraged as it goes against the principle of punctuality in government service.

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55. The original communication sent through fax

 

1. is enough and there is no need to send it again by post.

 

2. will subsequently be sent in a routine manner also.

 

3. will subsequently be sent in a routine manner only if the receiver

 

asks for original communication.

 

4. will be sent if the fax machine failed to print the sent communication report.

 

 

 

The most appropriate answer is:

  1. Will subsequently be sent in a routine manner only if the receiver asks for the original communication.

Explanation:

The key to understanding the answer lies in the conditional aspect of the question. In fax communication, the original document is often sent through the fax machine, and a confirmation report is generated upon successful transmission. However, the clarity about whether the faxed document will be sent again by post depends on the receiver's preference or request.

Let's break down each option:

  1. Is enough, and there is no need to send it again by post: This option assumes that the faxed communication is sufficient and doesn't require any further action. However, this may not be accurate, as the receiver might have specific preferences or requirements for receiving physical copies.

  2. Will subsequently be sent in a routine manner also: This option suggests that sending the communication by post is a routine practice, regardless of the receiver's preference. However, this may not be the case, as some receivers may prefer digital communication and may not want a duplicate in the mail.

  3. Will subsequently be sent in a routine manner only if the receiver asks for the original communication: This option considers the receiver's choice as a determining factor. If the receiver specifically requests the original document, it will be sent in a routine manner. This aligns with common practices in business communication, where respecting the recipient's preferences is crucial.

  4. Will be sent if the fax machine failed to print the sent communication report: This option introduces a technical issue as a condition for sending the original document. While technical failures are possible, they do not necessarily relate to the receiver's preference for receiving a physical copy. Additionally, a failed printout does not guarantee that the receiver wants a duplicate by post.

Therefore, option 3 provides a more comprehensive and contextually appropriate response, considering the likelihood of sending the original communication based on the receiver's explicit request.

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56. 'Part file' is opened

 

1. only if the main file on a subject is not likely to be available for some time and it is necessary to process a fresh receipt or a note without waiting for its return,

 

2. when main file becomes bulky

 

3. to keep annexures etc

 

4. when contents of the main file are confidential and cannot to be revealed to the consulting section

 

 

 

The correct option is:

  1. only if the main file on a subject is not likely to be available for some time and it is necessary to process a fresh receipt or a note without waiting for its return.

Explanation:

A 'Part file' is typically opened when the main file on a subject is not readily available, and there is a need to process new information without waiting for the return of the main file. This is a common practice in administrative or organizational settings where immediate action or processing of information is required, and waiting for the main file might cause delays.

Let's briefly discuss the other options:

  1. "When the main file becomes bulky" - This is not a typical reason for opening a 'Part file.' File size or bulkiness is generally managed through proper filing and archiving practices rather than creating separate 'Part files.'

  2. "To keep annexures, etc." - While keeping annexures or additional documents is a common practice, it doesn't specifically require the creation of a 'Part file.' Annexures can be appropriately attached to the main file without the need for a separate file.

  3. "When contents of the main file are confidential and cannot be revealed to the consulting section" - This is not a primary reason for opening a 'Part file.' Confidentiality is usually managed through secure filing systems, restricted access, or by handling confidential information separately within the main file.

In summary, option 1 best describes the primary purpose of opening a 'Part file' when the main file is not immediately available, and there is a need to process new information without waiting for its return.

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57. As per the Records Retention Schedule of Government of India a Category 'C' record is kept 'for specified period' not exceeding

 

1. 3 years.

 2. 5 years

 

3. 10 years

 

4. 25 years

 

 

 

The correct answer is 3. 10 years.

Explanation:

In the context of the Records Retention Schedule of the Government of India, records are categorized into different classes based on their importance, usage, and the duration for which they need to be retained. These categories help in managing and organizing the records efficiently. The "Category 'C'" records fall under the category of records that are kept for a "specified period" not exceeding 10 years.

The retention period for Category 'C' records is defined as a maximum of 10 years because these records are generally considered to be of moderate importance and are required to be retained for a specific duration for reference, compliance, or audit purposes. After the specified period, these records may be disposed of or archived based on the organization's policies and guidelines.

It's essential for government entities and organizations to adhere to records retention schedules to ensure proper governance, transparency, and compliance with legal and regulatory requirements. The classification of records into different categories with specified retention periods helps in efficient record-keeping, retrieval, and disposal processes.

 

 

 

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58. The Central Registry will NOT register:

 

 

1. dak received directly by e-mail addressed to the Ministers/officers by name

 

2.       parliament questions.

 

3. court summons

 

4. inter departmental files

 

 

The Central Registry typically manages the registration and tracking of official documents within a government or organizational framework. Let's break down each option to understand why the Central Registry may not register them:

  1. Dak received directly by e-mail addressed to the Ministers/officers by name:

  • Explanation: The Central Registry may not register dak (official correspondence or documents) received directly by email and addressed to specific Ministers or officers by name. This is because the Central Registry often deals with physical or formal electronic documents that are part of the official record-keeping system. Informal or personal communications directed to specific individuals may not be considered part of the official record and therefore might not be registered in the Central Registry.

  1. Parliament questions:

  • Explanation: Parliament questions are a part of the formal proceedings of a legislative body. These questions are usually addressed to specific government officials and are managed through the parliamentary process. The Central Registry may not register them as they are part of a separate and specialized system for handling parliamentary affairs.

  1. Court summons:

  • Explanation: Court summons are legal documents issued by a court to notify individuals of their required appearance. These documents are generally managed by the judiciary or legal departments rather than the Central Registry. The Central Registry focuses on administrative and official documentation within the government or organization, and court-related documents are usually handled by the legal and judicial system.

  1. Inter-departmental files:

  • Explanation: Inter-departmental files involve communication and documentation exchanged between different departments within an organization or government. These files are often managed within the respective departments rather than being registered centrally. The Central Registry typically deals with documents that have a broader organizational significance, and inter-departmental communication is managed internally by the relevant departments.

In summary, the Central Registry is likely to focus on registering and managing official documents that have organizational-wide significance and may not handle certain types of documents like those mentioned above, which are more specialized or directed to specific individuals, departments, or external entities.

 

 

 

59. All officers of the level of …………………. Will redress public grievances pertaining to the divisions under their charge.

 

1. Under Secretary and above

 

2. Deputy Secretary and above.

 

3. Joint Secretary and above

 

 4. Additional Secretary and above

 

 

 

The correct answer is:

  1. Joint Secretary and above

Explanation:

In government organizations, the level of officers who are responsible for redressing public grievances often varies. The statement indicates that officers at a certain level and above will handle public grievances related to the divisions under their charge.

Let's break down the options:

  1. Under Secretary and above: This option includes officers at the Under Secretary level and above. However, Under Secretaries are typically mid-level officers and may not be entrusted with the authority to handle public grievances of a significant nature. This option is less likely.

  2. Deputy Secretary and above: Similar to option 1, Deputy Secretaries are usually mid-level officers. While they may have more authority than Under Secretaries, they may still not be the most appropriate level of officers for addressing public grievances. This option is less likely.

  3. Joint Secretary and above: Joint Secretaries are typically senior officers in government organizations. They hold key positions and are likely to have the authority and responsibility to handle public grievances related to the divisions under their charge. This option is more plausible.

  4. Additional Secretary and above: Additional Secretaries are even higher in the hierarchy, and they too are likely to have the necessary authority to redress public grievances. However, the term "Joint Secretary and above" is more inclusive and encompassing than "Additional Secretary and above." Therefore, option 4 is less likely.

In summary, option 3, "Joint Secretary and above," is the most suitable answer as Joint Secretaries are often at a level where they have the authority and responsibility to address public grievances effectively.

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60. A continual analysis and measurement of actual operations against the predetermined standards developed during the planning period is called

 

1. Staffing

 

2. Planning

 

3. Controlling

 

4. Monitoring

 

 



 

The correct answer is:

  1. Controlling

Explanation:

Controlling is the process of ensuring that actual operations align with the predetermined standards developed during the planning phase. It involves continuous analysis and measurement to assess whether the organization is progressing towards its goals and objectives. The controlling function helps identify any deviations from the plans and standards, allowing for corrective actions to be taken to bring the operations back on track.

Let's briefly explore each