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CSIR PAPER II COMPLETE SOLUTION WITH DETAILED EXPLANATION









1. 1. A technique to figure out the additional cost for production of additional units

 

1.Break-even analysis

2. Financial analysis

3. Ratio analysis

4. Marginal cost analysis

 

The correct answer is: 4. Marginal cost analysis

Explanation:

  1. Break-even analysis:

  • Break-even analysis is a financial tool used to determine the point at which total revenue equals total costs, resulting in neither profit nor loss. It helps identify the level of production or sales needed to cover all costs. However, it does not specifically focus on the additional cost for producing extra units.

  1. Financial analysis:

  • Financial analysis involves examining financial statements and other financial data to assess the financial health and performance of a business. It provides an overall view of the company's financial position but may not specifically isolate the additional cost associated with the production of extra units.

  1. Ratio analysis:

  • Ratio analysis involves the examination of various financial ratios to evaluate the company's performance, liquidity, solvency, and efficiency. While it provides valuable insights into different aspects of a company's financial health, it does not specifically address the additional cost incurred with the production of additional units.

  1. Marginal cost analysis:

  • Marginal cost analysis focuses on the additional cost incurred for producing one more unit of a product or service. It helps in understanding the change in total cost resulting from producing an additional unit. Marginal cost is calculated by taking the change in total cost divided by the change in quantity produced. This analysis is crucial for making informed decisions about production levels and pricing strategies.

In summary, when the objective is to determine the additional cost for the production of extra units, marginal cost analysis is the most relevant technique among the options provided.

 

 

 

2. Inspiring the members of the organization, charting the future of the organization and envisioning the future is

 

1. Management

 2. Administration

3. Leadership

4. Planning

 

The correct answer is 3. Leadership.

Explanation:

  1. Management: Management involves coordinating and overseeing the day-to-day operations of an organization. It focuses on planning, organizing, directing, and controlling resources to achieve specific goals. While management is essential for maintaining the current functioning of the organization, it may not necessarily involve inspiring or envisioning the future.

  2. Administration: Administration generally refers to the implementation of policies and procedures within an organization. It is more about executing plans and ensuring smooth operations rather than being directly tied to inspiring and envisioning the future.

  3. Leadership: Leadership is the process of influencing and inspiring others to achieve a common goal. Leaders are responsible for guiding and motivating their team members, setting a vision for the future, and making strategic decisions. Inspiring the members of the organization, charting the future, and envisioning future possibilities are key aspects of effective leadership.

  4. Planning: Planning is the process of setting objectives and determining the actions needed to achieve them. While planning is an essential component of organizational success, it is not synonymous with inspiring the members or envisioning the future. Planning is more about creating a roadmap for achieving goals.

In summary, inspiring the members of the organization, charting the future, and envisioning future possibilities are distinctive characteristics of leadership. Leadership goes beyond mere management, administration, or planning, as it involves motivating and guiding individuals toward a shared vision for the future.

 

 

3. Facilitating and improving performance of employees by building conducive environment is called

 

1. Performance management

 

2. Performance appraisal

 

3. Performance review

 

4. Performance reduction.

 

 

The correct answer is:

  1. Performance management

Explanation:

Performance management refers to the process of creating a conducive work environment to enhance the performance of employees within an organization. It involves a set of activities and strategies aimed at improving employee effectiveness, productivity, and overall job satisfaction.

Here's a breakdown of the options:

  1. Performance management: This is the correct answer. Performance management is a comprehensive approach that includes setting clear expectations, providing regular feedback, offering developmental opportunities, and recognizing and rewarding achievements. It focuses on creating a positive work environment that encourages employees to perform at their best.

  2. Performance appraisal: While performance appraisal is a component of performance management, it specifically refers to the formal evaluation of an employee's job performance against pre-established criteria. It is a part of the broader performance management process.

  3. Performance review: This term is often used interchangeably with performance appraisal. It involves assessing and discussing an employee's performance, strengths, and areas for improvement. Again, it is a subset of performance management.

  4. Performance reduction: This option is incorrect. Performance reduction typically implies a decrease in an employee's effectiveness or productivity, which is the opposite of what is intended in the context of creating a conducive environment for improved performance.

In summary, while performance appraisal and performance review are components of the overall performance management process, the broader concept that encompasses creating a conducive environment for employee performance is performance management.

 

 

 

 

4. Two or more people or organizations work together to realize shared goals. by sharing knowledge is called

 

 

1. Collaboration

2. Amalgamation

3. Merger

4. Partnership

 

The correct answer is:

  1. Collaboration

Explanation:

Collaboration refers to the act of two or more individuals or organizations working together to achieve common goals or objectives. It involves the sharing of ideas, resources, and knowledge to accomplish tasks more effectively than if each party were working independently. Collaboration can take various forms, such as joint projects, partnerships, or teamwork.

Let's briefly explore the other options:

  1. Amalgamation: Amalgamation typically refers to the process of combining or uniting multiple entities into a single, unified whole. While collaboration may involve working together, amalgamation usually implies a more comprehensive integration, often in a corporate or organizational context.

  2. Merger: A merger is a specific type of business combination where two or more companies combine to form a new entity. It involves the consolidation of assets, liabilities, and operations. While mergers do involve cooperation and coordination, the emphasis is on the creation of a new entity rather than the collaborative process itself.

  3. Partnership: A partnership is a formal arrangement where two or more parties agree to cooperate to advance their mutual interests. Partnerships can involve collaboration, but the term is more specific to a legal business structure where individuals or organizations come together to share responsibilities, profits, and losses.

In summary, the most appropriate term for two or more people or organizations working together to realize shared goals by sharing knowledge is "collaboration."

 

 

 

 

5. Comparing various options using decision-analysis techniques and calculating a project's viability is

called

 

1. Project appraisal

 

2. Performance management

 

3. Project review

 

4. Project selection.

 

 

 

The correct answer is 1. Project appraisal.

Project appraisal involves the process of comparing various options using decision-analysis techniques to assess and calculate the viability of a project. Let's break down each option to understand why project appraisal is the most suitable choice:

  1. Project appraisal:

  • Project appraisal is the systematic assessment of the various aspects of a project, including its costs, benefits, risks, and overall feasibility.

  • Decision-analysis techniques are commonly employed during project appraisal to evaluate different alternatives and make informed decisions.

  • This process helps in determining whether a project is worth pursuing and provides a basis for selecting the most viable option.

  1. Performance management:

  • Performance management is more focused on monitoring and improving the performance of individuals, teams, or processes within an organization.

  • While performance management is essential for ongoing operations, it doesn't specifically involve the comparison of various project options or the calculation of project viability.

  1. Project review:

  • Project review typically refers to an evaluation or examination of a project's progress, performance, and outcomes after it has been implemented.

  • It is retrospective in nature and may not involve the detailed decision-analysis techniques used in project appraisal for comparing different options.

  1. Project selection:

  • Project selection is a broader term that encompasses the process of choosing a particular project from a pool of potential projects.

  • Project appraisal is a key component of project selection, where various options are analyzed to make an informed decision about which project(s) to pursue.

In summary, project appraisal is the most appropriate term for the activity described in the question, as it involves comparing options and using decision-analysis techniques to assess a project's viability before making a decision on whether to proceed with it.

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6. Identify the false statement

 

1. Business rules cannot be built into the design of application software

 

2. Use case diagrams indicate system functionalities

 

3. Software solutions can provide decision support to enterprise users

 

4. Different users can be provided with different views of the database

 

 

 

The false statement among the given options is:

  1. Business rules cannot be built into the design of application software.

Explanation:

This statement is false. In reality, business rules can and should be built into the design of application software. Business rules are specific statements that define or constrain some aspect of the business and are intended to assert business structure or to control or influence the behavior of the business. Incorporating these rules into the design of application software ensures that the software aligns with the business requirements and functions as intended.

Let's briefly explain the other statements:

  1. Use case diagrams indicate system functionalities.

  • True. Use case diagrams are a type of diagram in the Unified Modeling Language (UML) that represent the interactions between actors (users) and a system. They depict the various functionalities or features that the system provides.

  1. Software solutions can provide decision support to enterprise users.

  • True. Many software solutions, especially those in the business intelligence and analytics domain, are designed to provide decision support by processing and analyzing data to help users make informed decisions.

  1. Different users can be provided with different views of the database.

  • True. Database systems often support the concept of user roles and permissions, allowing different users to have different levels of access and views of the database based on their roles and responsibilities. This helps in maintaining data security and ensuring that users only have access to the information relevant to their tasks.

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7. Which of the following statements is true in the context of legislatures in India

 

1. The Government of India and all the State Governments have bicameral legislature

2. The Government of India has bicameral and all the State Governments have unicameral Legislature

 3. The Government of India and a few State Governments have bicameral legislature

4. The Government of India and all the State Governments have unicameral legislature

 

 

 

The correct answer is:

  1. The Government of India and a few State Governments have bicameral legislature

Explanation:

  1. The first option, "The Government of India and all the State Governments have bicameral legislature," is incorrect. As of my last knowledge update in January 2022, not all state governments in India have bicameral legislatures. Some states have unicameral legislatures, meaning they have only one house (either Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council).

  2. The second option, "The Government of India has bicameral and all the State Governments have unicameral Legislature," is also incorrect. The Indian Parliament is bicameral, consisting of the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and the Rajya Sabha (Council of States). However, as mentioned earlier, not all state governments follow the same pattern.

  3. The third option, "The Government of India and a few State Governments have bicameral legislature," is the correct statement. The Indian Parliament (Government of India) is bicameral, and a few states in India also have bicameral legislatures, which include Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council. However, many states have a unicameral legislature, having only the Legislative Assembly.

  4. The fourth option, "The Government of India and all the State Governments have unicameral legislature," is incorrect. As mentioned earlier, the Indian Parliament is bicameral, and not all state governments have unicameral legislatures; some have bicameral structures.

In summary, the correct statement is that the Government of India has a bicameral legislature, and only a few State Governments (not all) also have a bicameral legislature.

 

 

 

8.What is the minimum financial limit in respect of a Works Project above. which a Review Committee has to be constituted?

 

 

1. Rs 10 Crores

 

2. Rs 15 Crores

 

3. Rs 20 Crores

 

4. Rs 25 Crores

 

 

 

 

9. All conduct of business of the Government of a State shall be expressed to be taken in the name of

 

1. President of India

 

2. Governor of the State

 

3. Chief Minister of the State

 

4. Minister of the Department

 

 

 

The correct answer is option 2: Governor of the State.

Explanation:

According to the Constitution of India, Article 166 specifies the conduct of the business of the Government of a State. It states that all executive actions of the government shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Governor of the State. This means that official communications, orders, and decisions of the state government are made on behalf of the Governor.

The other options are not correct for the following reasons:

  1. President of India: The President of India is the head of the Union government, and the state government's actions are not expressed in the President's name. Each state has its own Governor who represents the President at the state level.

  2. Chief Minister of the State: The Chief Minister is the head of the state government and is responsible for the administration and policy decisions. However, the formal expression of executive actions is done in the name of the Governor, not the Chief Minister.

  3. Minister of the Department: Ministers, including the Chief Minister, are responsible for specific departments and policy matters. However, the overall executive authority is vested in the Governor, and the actions are expressed in the Governor's name, not in the name of individual ministers or the Chief Minister.

In summary, the conduct of the business of the Government of a State is expressed in the name of the Governor of the State, as specified in Article 166 of the Indian Constitution.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

10. In Parliamentary form of democratic government that India has adopted, the terms "Head of the State" and "Head of the Government" refer to

 

1. The President of India and the Prime Minister of India respectively

 

2. The Prime Minister of India and the President of India respectively

 

3. The Governor of the State and the President of India respectively

 

4. The Chief Minister of the State and the Governor of the State respectively

 

 

In the Parliamentary form of democratic government adopted by India, the terms "Head of the State" and "Head of the Government" refer to:

1. The President of India and the Prime Minister of India respectively

Explanation:

  • Head of the State: The President of India serves as the ceremonial head of the state. The President's role is largely symbolic and representative of the unity of the country. The President's powers are limited to performing constitutional duties, such as the appointment of the Prime Minister and the dissolution of the Parliament.

  • Head of the Government: The Prime Minister of India is the head of the government. The Prime Minister is responsible for the day-to-day administration of the country, policy formulation, and decision-making. The Prime Minister is the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha (the lower house of Parliament) and is appointed by the President.

In summary, the President of India is the Head of the State, while the Prime Minister of India is the Head of the Government in the Parliamentary form of democratic government adopted by India. Therefore, option 1 is the correct answer.

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11. Which of the following is a prerequisite of social audit

 

1. Reduction of corruption

2. Reduction of wastage of public resources

 

3. Efficient implementation of public policies and programmes

 

4. Empowerment of people through transparency and other means

 

 

 

The correct answer is: 4. Empowerment of people through transparency and other means

Explanation:

Social audit is a process through which the effectiveness and impact of social programs and policies are evaluated by involving the participation of the community and other stakeholders. It aims to ensure transparency, accountability, and empower people by providing them with the tools to assess the performance of public initiatives. Let's discuss why option 4, "Empowerment of people through transparency and other means," is a prerequisite for social audit:

  1. Empowerment of People: Social audit fundamentally involves the active participation of the community and stakeholders. Empowering people means giving them the necessary information, knowledge, and tools to understand and evaluate the impact of public policies and programs on their lives.

  2. Transparency: Transparency is a key component of social audit. It requires making information related to social programs and policies accessible to the public. This transparency allows people to scrutinize and assess whether the programs are implemented efficiently and whether the resources allocated are utilized effectively.

  3. Informed Decision-Making: Empowered and informed citizens are better equipped to make decisions and hold public institutions accountable. Social audit promotes a culture of informed decision-making where individuals can actively engage in discussions, assess the outcomes of public initiatives, and suggest improvements.

  4. Participation in Governance: Social audit is not just about assessing the impact of policies but also involves active participation in the governance process. Through transparency and empowerment, people can actively contribute to decision-making processes, providing valuable insights and perspectives that might be overlooked otherwise.

While options 1, 2, and 3 are important aspects of good governance, they are not direct prerequisites for social audit. Social audit is more focused on engaging and empowering the community to actively participate in evaluating and improving the social programs that directly affect them. Therefore, option 4, "Empowerment of people through transparency and other means," is the most relevant prerequisite for social audit.

 

12. The functions of Government of India are carried out by a number of Ministries and Departments.The distribution of subjects among the Ministries and the Departments is specified in

 

1. The Constitution of India

2. The Government of India.(Allocation of Business) Rules,1961

3. The Government of India. (Transaction of Business) Rules,1961

4. Manual of Office Procedure

 

 

The distribution of subjects among the Ministries and Departments of the Government of India is specified in the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961. Therefore, the correct answer is:

  1. The Government of India. (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961

Explanation:

  1. The Constitution of India: While the Constitution of India outlines the powers and functions of various organs of the government, including the executive, it doesn't provide detailed specifications on the distribution of subjects among different Ministries and Departments. The Constitution generally outlines the broad framework of governance.

  2. The Government of India. (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961: These rules are formulated under Article 77(3) of the Constitution of India. They specify the distribution of various subjects among the Ministries and Departments of the Government of India. The rules are periodically updated to reflect changes in the organization and priorities of the government.

  3. The Government of India. (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961: While these rules are related to the conduct of government business, they primarily deal with the procedures for transaction of business rather than the allocation of subjects. They detail how decisions are to be made and procedures to be followed by the government.

  4. Manual of Office Procedure: The Manual of Office Procedure provides guidelines for the conduct of government business and procedures to be followed in offices. However, it doesn't specify the distribution of subjects among different Ministries and Departments; rather, it focuses on the day-to-day functioning of government offices.

In summary, the specific distribution of subjects among Ministries and Departments is outlined in the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961.

 

 

 

 

 

13.Right to Information Act was promulgated in the year

 

 

1. 1999

 

2. 2001

 

3. 2003

 

4. 2005

 

 

The Right to Information Act was promulgated in the year 2005.

Explanation:

The Right to Information Act, 2005, was enacted by the Parliament of India and came into force on October 12, 2005. This legislation aimed to promote transparency and accountability in the functioning of government agencies by allowing citizens to access information held by public authorities.

The Act empowers Indian citizens to request information from public authorities, making the government more accountable to the people. It is a crucial tool for promoting transparency, fighting corruption, and ensuring the proper functioning of democratic institutions. The RTI Act has played a significant role in empowering citizens by providing them with the means to actively participate in the decision-making process and hold public officials accountable for their actions.

 

 

 

14. Generally which of the following comes into existence by registration under the provisions of Societies Registration Act, 1860

 

1. Attached Office of Government of India

 

2. Central Public Sector Enterprise

 

3. Central autonomous body

 

4. Statutory body

 

 

 

The correct answer is: 3. Central autonomous body

Explanation:

The Societies Registration Act, 1860, primarily deals with the registration of societies in India. A society, as per this act, is an association of individuals united together by mutual consent to deliberate, determine, and act jointly for a common purpose. When an entity registers under the Societies Registration Act, it becomes a legal entity, and it is usually formed for charitable, religious, literary, scientific, or other similar purposes.

Now, let's analyze the given options:

  1. Attached Office of Government of India: An attached office of the Government of India is a government department or office that operates within a larger ministry or department. These are typically created by an executive order or administrative decision and do not come into existence through registration under the Societies Registration Act.

  2. Central Public Sector Enterprise: Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) are government-owned corporations or companies. They are created through specific acts of Parliament or by executive orders. Registration under the Societies Registration Act is not the usual mechanism for establishing CPSEs.

  3. Central autonomous body: Central autonomous bodies are entities that operate independently under the guidance of the government but have a certain degree of autonomy. They can be established under specific acts of Parliament or through other legal means, and registration under the Societies Registration Act is one possible way for their formation.

  4. Statutory body: Statutory bodies are created through legislation (acts of Parliament). They derive their powers and functions from specific statutes. Registration under the Societies Registration Act is not the usual method for establishing statutory bodies.

In summary, while central autonomous bodies can be formed by registration under the Societies Registration Act, it's essential to note that other legal mechanisms may also be used for their creation, depending on the specific requirements and purposes outlined in relevant legislation.

 

 

 

15. Which of the following most appropriately depicts framework of ethical governance

 

1. Adherence to universal values like honesty, truth and unselfishness

 

2. Inclusive development

 

3. Accountability,transparency,responsiveness, equitable and inclusive development, rule of

law, adherence to universal values. like honesty, truth and unselfishness

 

4. Transparency and accountability

 

 

The most appropriate depiction of the framework of ethical governance is:

  1. Accountability, transparency, responsiveness, equitable and inclusive development, rule of law, adherence to universal values like honesty, truth, and unselfishness.

Explanation:

  1. Adherence to universal values like honesty, truth, and unselfishness: While adherence to universal values is an essential aspect of ethical governance, it alone does not constitute a comprehensive framework. The ethical framework should include other key elements such as accountability, transparency, and development considerations.

  2. Inclusive development: Inclusive development is an important component of ethical governance, but it is only one aspect. A comprehensive ethical governance framework encompasses a broader set of principles beyond just development.

  3. Accountability, transparency, responsiveness, equitable and inclusive development, rule of law, adherence to universal values like honesty, truth, and unselfishness: This option provides a well-rounded and comprehensive framework for ethical governance. It includes key elements such as accountability, transparency, responsiveness, equitable and inclusive development, rule of law, and adherence to universal values. A combination of these principles ensures a more robust and holistic approach to ethical governance.

  4. Transparency and accountability: While transparency and accountability are crucial components of ethical governance, a complete framework should encompass a broader range of principles to address the multifaceted nature of governance. Option 3 is more comprehensive as it includes these elements along with others for a more inclusive ethical framework.

 

 

16. Which of the following policy deals with the cost of money (rate of interest) to dovetail with developmental objectives of the government

 

1. Policy announcements made during Finance Minister's budget speech

 

2. Fiscal policy

 

3. Monetary policy

 

4.Policies adopted by commercial banks

 

 

The correct answer is 3. Monetary policy.

Explanation:

Monetary policy refers to the actions and measures taken by a country's central bank (like the Federal Reserve in the United States or the Reserve Bank of India) to control and regulate the money supply and interest rates in the economy. The main objective of monetary policy is to achieve the broader economic goals of the government, including economic growth, price stability, and employment.

In the context of the question, the cost of money, represented by the rate of interest, is a crucial element of monetary policy. The central bank adjusts interest rates to influence borrowing and spending behavior in the economy. By doing so, they aim to ensure that the cost of money aligns with the developmental objectives of the government.

The other options are explained as follows:

  1. Policy announcements made during Finance Minister's budget speech: While the Finance Minister's budget speech outlines the government's fiscal policy, it primarily focuses on taxation, government spending, and fiscal deficit targets. It may not directly address the cost of money or interest rates.

  2. Fiscal policy: Fiscal policy involves government decisions related to taxation and spending. It is primarily concerned with managing government revenue and expenditure to achieve economic objectives. While fiscal policy plays a crucial role in economic development, it does not directly deal with the cost of money or interest rates.

  3. Policies adopted by commercial banks: Commercial banks operate within the framework set by monetary policy and regulations imposed by the central bank. While their lending and deposit policies can influence interest rates, the primary authority to set interest rates lies with the central bank through its monetary policy decisions.

In summary, monetary policy is the key tool for adjusting the cost of money (interest rates) to align with the developmental objectives of the government.

 

 






17. What is the maximum number of casual leave a Government Servant is entitled.

in a year?

 

1. 10 days

 

2. 12 days

 

3. 06 days

 

4. 08 days

 

 

 

The maximum number of casual leave a Government Servant is entitled to in a year in India is 8 days. This is as per the Central Government Employees (Leave) Rules, 1978, which apply to all central government employees. However, it's important to note that some states may have different rules for their own employees.

Here's a breakdown of the different options you provided:

  1. 10 days: This was the maximum entitlement before 1998, but it was reduced to 8 days with effect from January 1, 1998.

  2. 12 days: This was also a previous entitlement, but it was reduced to 8 days in 1998.

  3. 6 days: This is not the standard entitlement for any category of government servant in India.

  4. 8 days: This is the current maximum entitlement for central government employees in India.

It's also important to remember that casual leave is meant for short periods of absence due to unforeseen circumstances, and not for planned vacations or extended breaks.

 

18. Generally speaking, regulatory bodies come into existence

 

1. By provisions stipulated in the Constitution of India

 

2. By registering under the Companies Act, 1956

 

3. By an Act of Parliament

 

4. By registering under the Societies Registration Act, 1860

 

 

 

Regulatory bodies typically come into existence through an Act of Parliament. Therefore, the correct option is:

  1. By an Act of Parliament

Explanation:

  1. By provisions stipulated in the Constitution of India: While the Constitution of India may provide for certain institutions and their powers, regulatory bodies are not generally established directly by constitutional provisions. Instead, the Constitution may empower the government to enact laws or establish bodies through legislation.

  2. By registering under the Companies Act, 1956: The Companies Act, 1956 (and its successor, the Companies Act, 2013) primarily governs the incorporation, regulation, and winding up of companies in India. However, regulatory bodies are typically separate entities created by specific legislation to oversee and regulate certain sectors or industries.

  3. By an Act of Parliament: This is the correct option. Regulatory bodies are usually established through acts passed by the Parliament of India. These acts define the scope, powers, and functions of the regulatory body, specifying its role in regulating and overseeing particular sectors such as finance, telecommunications, environment, etc.

  4. By registering under the Societies Registration Act, 1860: The Societies Registration Act, 1860, provides for the registration of societies for charitable purposes, but it is not the usual route for establishing regulatory bodies. Regulatory bodies often require a more specific legal framework to address the complexities and challenges within the sectors they regulate.

In summary, regulatory bodies in India are typically created through specific legislation enacted by the Parliament, addressing the need for regulatory oversight in various sectors.

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19.While formulating Citizen's Charter, who among the following are to be associated

 

1. Only the senior officers of the organisation

 

2. Only the staff working in the organisation

 

 3. Both the senior officers and the staff working in the organisation

 

4. Senior officers and the staff working in the organisation as well as the customers whom the

 

organisation serves

 

 

The correct option is: 4. Senior officers and the staff working in the organisation as well as the customers whom the organisation serves.

Explanation:

A Citizen's Charter is a document that outlines the commitment of a government or organization towards its citizens or customers. It is meant to provide information about the services offered, the quality standards to be maintained, and the grievance redressal mechanisms in place.

In the formulation of a Citizen's Charter, it is essential to involve various stakeholders to ensure a comprehensive and effective document. Here's why each group mentioned in option 4 is important:

  1. Senior Officers: Senior officers are responsible for setting the vision, policies, and standards of the organization. Their involvement is crucial in defining the overall commitment to service quality and accountability.

  2. Staff working in the organisation: The frontline staff plays a vital role in implementing the policies and delivering services. Their insights into the practical aspects of service delivery are valuable in drafting a realistic and achievable Citizen's Charter.

  3. Customers: Including the perspective of customers is essential as they are the end-users of the services. Involving customers ensures that their expectations, needs, and concerns are considered in the formulation of the charter, leading to better alignment with the actual requirements of the service recipients.

By involving all these stakeholders (senior officers, staff, and customers), a Citizen's Charter can be developed with a more comprehensive understanding of the organization's capabilities, the actual service delivery on the ground, and the expectations of the citizens. This inclusive approach contributes to the transparency, accountability, and effectiveness of public services, ultimately fostering trust between the government/organization and its citizens.

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 20. The declared purpose of the RTI Act is to

 

I. promote transparency and accountability in the working of every public authority

 

 2. provide information to public with regard to actions of a public authority

 

3. enable public to act as a watch-dog

 

4. repeal Official Secrets Act-1923

 

 

The Right to Information (RTI) Act in India has the following declared purposes:

  1. Promote transparency and accountability in the working of every public authority: This means that the RTI Act aims to make the functioning of government bodies more open and accessible to the public. By providing citizens with the right to access information, it becomes possible to scrutinize and understand the actions and decisions of public authorities.

  2. Provide information to the public with regard to actions of a public authority: The RTI Act empowers citizens to request information from public authorities. This information can pertain to decisions, policies, and actions taken by the government. By making this information available, the Act enhances the public's understanding of governance and fosters informed participation in democratic processes.

  3. Enable the public to act as a watch-dog: The RTI Act empowers individuals to act as vigilant citizens by allowing them to seek information about government activities. This helps in preventing corruption, misuse of power, and ensures that public authorities are accountable for their actions. The public, armed with information, can play a crucial role in holding the government accountable and contributing to the overall health of the democratic system.

  4. Not mentioned in the options, but important to note: The RTI Act does not repeal the Official Secrets Act-1923. Instead, it provides an avenue for citizens to request information while maintaining certain exemptions to protect sensitive information related to national security.

In summary, the declared purpose of the RTI Act encompasses promoting transparency, providing information to the public, enabling citizens to act as watchdogs, and does not involve the repeal of the Official Secrets Act-1923.

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21. The rate of annual increment of pay in a pay band for government servants is?

 

1. 1%

 

 2. 2%

 

3. 3%

 

4. 4%

 

 

The rate of annual increment of pay in a pay band for government servants is typically 3%.

Explanation:

In many government organizations, employees are placed in pay bands or pay scales, and they receive annual increments in their basic pay as a part of their salary structure. The rate of annual increment is predetermined and is generally fixed at 3% of the basic pay.

This increment is intended to recognize the employee's experience, service, and performance over the past year. The 3% figure is a common standard, although it can vary in some cases based on specific government policies or collective bargaining agreements.

Therefore, option 3, "3%", is the correct answer for the rate of annual increment of pay in a pay band for government servants.

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22. A Public Authority under RTI Act includes

 

1. non-Government organisation not funded by Government

 

2. non-Government organisation substantially funded by Government funds,

 

3. any non-Government organisation, irrespective of the fact whether it received funds from

Government or not

 

4. RTI Act is not applicable to NGOs

 

 

 

The correct option is:

  1. Any non-Government organisation, irrespective of the fact whether it received funds from Government or not.

Explanation:

The Right to Information (RTI) Act in India is a powerful tool that allows citizens to seek information from public authorities to promote transparency and accountability in governance. The definition of a "Public Authority" under the RTI Act is crucial for determining which organizations are subject to the provisions of the Act.

According to the RTI Act, a "Public Authority" includes not only government departments but also any authority or body that is substantially funded, directly or indirectly, by government funds. The definition is broad and is not limited to entities receiving direct funding from the government.

Option 3 correctly reflects the inclusive nature of the definition. It states that any non-Government organization, irrespective of whether it receives funds from the government or not, falls under the ambit of a Public Authority under the RTI Act. This means that NGOs, regardless of their funding sources, can be considered Public Authorities if they meet certain criteria, such as substantial reliance on government funds or performing functions of public importance.

Options 1 and 2 attempt to limit the scope of Public Authority to only those non-Government organizations that are either not funded by the government or substantially funded by government funds. However, these options do not accurately capture the comprehensive definition provided by the RTI Act.

Option 4 is incorrect because the RTI Act is indeed applicable to non-Government organizations meeting the specified criteria, and it is not limited to government entities only.

 

 

 

 

23. The term "foreign service" means

 

1. A service in a foreign country

 

2. A service in India in a foreign organization

 

3. A service where pay and allowances are payable from a source other than Consolidated Fund of India

 

4. Transfer of an employee on permanent appointment

 

 

 

Correct Answer: 3. A service where pay and allowances are payable from a source other than Consolidated Fund of India

  • Explanation: In the context of government employment and services, "foreign service" refers to a period during which an employee is deputed or transferred to work in a foreign country. The correct definition is option 3, where the pay and allowances of the employee during the foreign service are typically funded by a source other than the Consolidated Fund of India.

During foreign service, employees may work in international organizations, foreign governments, or any other foreign entities. The salary and other benefits are often paid by the host organization or country rather than the home country's government funds, which is why the pay and allowances are not drawn from the Consolidated Fund of India.

Options 1 and 2 do not accurately capture the essence of foreign service, and option 4 refers to a transfer on permanent appointment, which is not the same as being in foreign service.

 

 

24, What is the rate of House Rent Allowance for government servants posted in a city classified in category

 

 

1. 20%

 

2. 25%

 

3. 30%

 

4, 35%

 

 

 

The rate of House Rent Allowance (HRA) for government servants posted in a city classified in category X is 30% of their basic pay.

Here's a breakdown of the HRA rates for different city classifications in India:

  • X Category: 30% of basic pay

  • Y Category: 20% of basic pay

  • Z Category: 10% of basic pay

It's important to note that these are the basic rates, and there may be variations depending on factors like:

  • Dearness Allowance (DA) crossing certain thresholds: When DA crosses 25%, HRA rates for X, Y, and Z categories are revised to 27%, 18%, and 9%, respectively. When DA crosses 50%, they are further revised to 30%, 20%, and 10%, respectively.

  • Specific government orders: In some cases, the government may issue specific orders granting higher HRA rates in certain cities or areas.

 

 

 

21. The rate at which Dearness Allowance is payable to a government servant is revised twice a year in the months of

 

 

1. April and October

 

2. January and July

 

3. March and September

 

4.       Not specified

 

 

 

The correct answer is:

  1. January and July

Explanation:

Dearness Allowance (DA) is an allowance paid to government employees and pensioners to offset the impact of inflation on their standard of living. In India, the rate of Dearness Allowance is revised twice a year, typically in the months of January and July.

The revision is based on the All India Consumer Price Index (CPI), which measures the average change in prices of goods and services consumed by households. The formula used for calculating DA takes into account the average inflation over a specified period.

Therefore, government employees and pensioners receive updated Dearness Allowance rates in their salaries or pensions in the months of January and July each year. This bi-annual revision ensures that the allowance reflects the current economic conditions and helps in maintaining the real purchasing power of the employees and pensioners in the face of inflation.

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26. Maximum number of days of earned leave that can be accumulated in the entire service period by a Government

 

1. 300

 

2. 365

 

3. 400

 

4. 500

 

 

The correct answer is option 2: 365.

Explanation:

In government services, earned leave is a type of leave that is accrued by an employee based on the number of days worked. The maximum number of days of earned leave that can be accumulated in the entire service period is typically governed by the rules and regulations of the specific government organization.

The common practice is to limit the accumulation of earned leave to a certain maximum number of days to ensure that employees take regular breaks and do not hoard a significant amount of leave. The most widely accepted limit is 365 days, allowing an employee to accumulate one day of earned leave for each day worked in a year.

Option 2, which is 365, reflects this standard practice and is considered the maximum number of days of earned leave that can be accumulated in the entire service period for government employees. It promotes a balance between work and leisure, encouraging employees to utilize their earned leave for rest and rejuvenation.

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27. Basic Pay in the revised pay structure includes

 

1. Pay Band+ Personal Pay

 

2. Pay Band+Personal Pay+Special Pay

 

3. Pay Band+Grade Pay

 

4. Pay Band Grade Pay+ Special Pay

 

 

In the context of government or organizational pay structures, the term "Basic Pay" typically refers to the fixed amount of salary that an employee receives, excluding allowances, bonuses, or other additional components. The composition of Basic Pay can vary, but it generally includes the Pay Band and Grade Pay.

The correct option among the provided choices is:

  1. Pay Band+Grade Pay

Explanation:

  1. Pay Band + Personal Pay: Personal Pay is not commonly included in the Basic Pay. Personal Pay is usually specific to an individual and may be granted based on factors such as performance, qualifications, or other personal considerations. However, it is not a standard component of Basic Pay.

  2. Pay Band + Personal Pay + Special Pay: Similar to the first option, Special Pay is usually not considered a part of Basic Pay. Special Pay is often granted for specific duties, skills, or circumstances and is not a fixed and regular part of an employee's salary.

  3. Pay Band + Grade Pay: This is the correct option. In many government pay structures, employees receive a fixed amount determined by their Pay Band and Grade Pay. The Pay Band represents the range of basic salary, and the Grade Pay is an additional amount assigned based on the employee's position or rank.

  4. Pay Band + Grade Pay + Special Pay: While Special Pay may be granted in certain situations, it is not a standard inclusion in Basic Pay. The usual components are the Pay Band and Grade Pay.

Therefore, the most common and standard components of Basic Pay in the revised pay structure are the Pay Band and Grade Pay.

 

 

28. Council of Scientific and Industrial Research is a

 

2. Society registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860

 

1. Central Government department

 

3. Attached office of the Government of India

 

4. Subordinate Office of the Government of India.

 

 

The correct option is:

  1. Attached office of the Government of India

Explanation:

The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) is an autonomous body under the Government of India that operates as an attached office. It was established with the primary aim of promoting scientific and industrial research for the development of the country. CSIR is not a department of the Central Government, a society registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, or a subordinate office. Instead, it functions as an attached office, which means it is directly linked to the government and operates under its administrative control.

Being an attached office, CSIR has a degree of autonomy in its operations, but it still reports to and is accountable to the government. This setup allows CSIR to conduct scientific research and development activities independently while aligning its objectives with the overall goals and policies of the government.

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29.FR in terms of service conditions governing government servants stands for

 

1. Fundamental Rules

 

2. Financial Rules

 

3. Fundamental Rights

 

4.       Foreign Rules

 

 



 

The correct answer is: 1. Fundamental Rules

Explanation:

FR in this context stands for Fundamental Rules. Fundamental Rules (FR) are a set of rules that govern the service conditions of government servants in India. These rules outline various aspects such as recruitment, pay, leave, promotion, and other conditions of service for government employees. The Fundamental Rules are an essential part of the legal framework that regulates the functioning of the government bureaucracy.

The other options can be briefly explained as follows:

  1. Financial Rules: Financial Rules generally refer to guidelines and regulations related to financial management, budgeting, and expenditure. While financial rules are crucial in government administration, they are distinct from the specific rules governing the service conditions of government servants.

  2. Fundamental Rights: Fundamental Rights refer to a set of rights guaranteed to the citizens of India by the Constitution. These rights include the right to equality, right to freedom, right against exploitation, right to freedom of religion, cultural and educational rights, and right to constitutional remedies. Fundamental Rights are not directly related to the service conditions of government servants.

  3. Foreign Rules: This term does not have a specific relevance in the context of service conditions governing government servants in India. It is not a recognized category of rules in this context.

Therefore, the most appropriate and contextually relevant answer is "1. Fundamental Rules."

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